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Does Objective Morality Exist?...
Friedrich Nietzsche called them humanity’s “herd instinct.” John Stuart Mill stated that they are the proportion to which an action leads to human happiness. Socrates believed that a “moral” individual would not harm an “immoral” individual. Philosophers (and scientists) have long debated the essence of morality, and different cultures have all at various times and even today possess differing ideas of what is morally acceptable. But one question above all else rings clear: do morals actually exist apart from our subjective human world, in the objective realm? To be clear, morals and ethics are something urgently required by society to function properly and to ensure human happiness and trust. For truly, a wold without morals would be a world of chaos and misfortune, presumably. With that established, however, do morals actually exist objectively? If so, who or what sets the rules and what are they? If not, why not? I invite the artists and philosophers of Prose. to take up the challenge, and am eager to read your takes on this. All philosophical and religious views are welcome.
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xCalypso in Philosophy

objective: subjectivity

Of course morals don't exist in the objective realm;

the objective realm does not exist at all.

Or if it does, it's unseeable, unknowable, indistinguishable.

There's no way for us to recognize it, so what's the use in creating this made-up distinction bewteen 'subjective' and 'objective'? No one can prove anything,

not really,

so the idea of objective reality is

useless.

If it exists, it may as well not exist.

If it doesn't exist, what's the difference?

There is none.

So of course there are no objective morals. And if there are,

we can't distinguish them from everything else anyway.

The idea of objectivity is not actionable.

All it does in the real world (experiencial, subjective)

is spawn arguments and know-it-alls.

"I know better because I'm objective."

No, you're not.

No one is.